Do you agree with the Western definition of paedophilia?

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The Nomad
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Re: Do you agree with the Western definition of paedophilia?

Post by The Nomad »

Amadeus101 wrote:
Look, I'm not going to argue the active stages of puberty with you because you either don't know it or you think it's cute to play devil's advocate today, active changes happen between the ages of 14-18 in the majority of people, AND THAT'S A FACT.

lol @ you asking me to produce a peer review study as if we're talking about unicorns or something!

Oh, and can you tell you're handbag to stop quoting me if he has nothing to substantially say!
I am well-versed in the stages of puberty. Are you denying hormonal changes happen past the age of 18?

Active changes happen between the ages of 18 and 40, both mental and physical. Does that mean we should wait until 40 to marry a woman?

That's what you do when you debate. You argue a standpoint and provide proof to support it. If you cannot provide incontrovertible evidence, chances are you're wrong.
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Re: Do you agree with the Western definition of paedophilia?

Post by Amadeus101 »

The Nomad wrote:
Amadeus101 wrote:
Look, I'm not going to argue the active stages of puberty with you because you either don't know it or you think it's cute to play devil's advocate today, active changes happen between the ages of 14-18 in the majority of people, AND THAT'S A FACT.

lol @ you asking me to produce a peer review study as if we're talking about unicorns or something!

Oh, and can you tell you're handbag to stop quoting me if he has nothing to substantially say!
I am well-versed in the stages of puberty. Are you denying hormonal changes happen past the age of 18?

Active changes happen between the ages of 18 and 40, both mental and physical. Does that mean we should wait until 40 to marry a woman?

That's what you do when you debate. You argue a standpoint and provide proof to support it. If you cannot provide incontrovertible evidence, chances are you're wrong.
OF COURSE changes happen past 18, MENOPAUSE anyone?
But I'm talking about puberty, it is an accepted stage in human development that no one can refute!
You said that NO changes, mental of physical happen between the ages of 14-18 and you are absolutely wrong!
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Re: Do you agree with the Western definition of paedophilia?

Post by Mr. Yungnfresh »

Amadeus101 wrote:Look, I'm not going to argue the active stages of puberty with you because you either don't know it or you think it's cute to play devil's advocate today, active changes happen between the ages of 14-18 in the majority of people, AND THAT'S A FACT.

lol @ you asking me to produce a peer review study as if we're talking about unicorns or something!

Oh, and can you tell you're handbag to stop quoting me if he has nothing to substantially say!
lol log off and learn English sxb. It's rich of you to ask me to stop quoting you when you're the one who addressed me initially and won't stop referring to me in every post.

If you're arguing with this dude, argue with him and stop referring to me. The reason I didn't say you argued your position well initially was because you DIDN'T argue your position well...you're all over the place and not-so-subtly subtly implying Islam is flawed and we need to move beyond primitive practices. I don't care to debate with you, lakiin hadaad ninkaas iska celin wayday, then that's all you homeboy..i'll leave it at that since it's Ramadan
Last edited by Mr. Yungnfresh on Sun Aug 30, 2009 9:32 am, edited 1 time in total.
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Re: Do you agree with the Western definition of paedophilia?

Post by The Nomad »

Amadeus101 wrote:
The Nomad wrote:
Amadeus101 wrote:
Look, I'm not going to argue the active stages of puberty with you because you either don't know it or you think it's cute to play devil's advocate today, active changes happen between the ages of 14-18 in the majority of people, AND THAT'S A FACT.

lol @ you asking me to produce a peer review study as if we're talking about unicorns or something!

Oh, and can you tell you're handbag to stop quoting me if he has nothing to substantially say!
I am well-versed in the stages of puberty. Are you denying hormonal changes happen past the age of 18?

Active changes happen between the ages of 18 and 40, both mental and physical. Does that mean we should wait until 40 to marry a woman?

That's what you do when you debate. You argue a standpoint and provide proof to support it. If you cannot provide incontrovertible evidence, chances are you're wrong.
OF COURSE changes happen past 18, MENOPAUSE anyone?
But I'm talking about puberty, it is an accepted stage in human development that no one can refute!
You said that NO changes, mental of physical happen between the ages of 14-18 and you are absolutely wrong!
So why not marry a woman in her menopause if you want your wife to be completely developed?

Let me provide clarification. No mental or physical changes which should affect marriage happen between the ages of 14-18. Unless you can provide empirical proof which explicitly states the puberty cycle begins at 14 and ends at 18, the conventionally accepted definitions are of no worth
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Re: Do you agree with the Western definition of paedophilia?

Post by Grant »

Which "West" are you talking about?

http://www.channel4.com/health/microsit ... bate.shtml

Eighteen is the age of emancipation in the US, that is, a child becomes financially and legally personally responsible. But this has never been an absolute age of consent. Minors have been able to marry, with parental consent, below that age, for years. One of my nephews married a 16 year old at the age of 16, with the consent of both sets of parents. It lasted all of two years.

There is the general assumption the sex leads to children. Society has an interest in assuring that parents are able to provide for their offspring without reliance on the public coffers, which has lead to the issuance of mariage licenses, and a limitation on marriages. Currently, in most Western societies, in takes two incomes to successfully raise a family. This gives society an interest in the education of women and a positive advantage in delaying marriages.
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Re: Do you agree with the Western definition of paedophilia?

Post by The Nomad »

Grant wrote:Which "West" are you talking about?
The developed, secular world.
http://www.channel4.com/health/microsit ... bate.shtml

Eighteen is the age of emancipation in the US, that is, a child becomes financially and legally personally responsible. But this has never been an absolute age of consent. Minors have been able to marry, with parental consent, below that age, for years. One of my nephews married a 16 year old at the age of 16, with the consent of both sets of parents. It lasted all of two years.

There is the general assumption the sex leads to children. Society has an interest in assuring that parents are able to provide for their offspring without reliance on the public coffers, which has lead to the issuance of mariage licenses, and a limitation on marriages. Currently, in most Western societies, in takes two incomes to successfully raise a family. This gives society an interest in the education of women and a positive advantage in delaying marriages.
Again, this is why discretion should be used and cases should be approved on an individual basis. Just because one male may not be able to suitably support a household, does not mean another can. This would also prevent countless preventable cases of neglect and irrational decisions regarding childbirth, which will ultimately aid the government and society as a whole.
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Re: Do you agree with the Western definition of paedophilia?

Post by Amadeus101 »

You're not going to bait me into this dumb conversation, if you honestly believe that no changes or development happens between the ages of 14-18, then you and your lackey are wrong!
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Re: Do you agree with the Western definition of paedophilia?

Post by The Nomad »

Amadeus101 wrote:You're not going to bait me into this dumb conversation, if you honestly believe that no changes or development happens between the ages of 14-18, then you and your lackey are wrong!
Quote where I said that or concede to being a liar. I said no noticeable changes which would affect marriage happen between that ages of 14 and 18, not that there is no development.
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Re: Do you agree with the Western definition of paedophilia?

Post by Amadeus101 »

But science says there's no noticeable change that happens, mentally or physically between the ages of 14/15/16/17 and 18.
Here's your quote
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Re: Do you agree with the Western definition of paedophilia?

Post by The Nomad »

Amadeus101 wrote:
But science says there's no noticeable change that happens, mentally or physically between the ages of 14/15/16/17 and 18.
Here's your quote
Keyword: Noticeable. Considering the subject we are discussing 'noticeable' would pertain to marriage.

I thought that was obvious.
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Re: Do you agree with the Western definition of paedophilia?

Post by Amadeus101 »

The Nomad wrote:
Amadeus101 wrote:
But science says there's no noticeable change that happens, mentally or physically between the ages of 14/15/16/17 and 18.
Here's your quote
Keyword: Noticeable. Considering the subject we are discussing 'noticeable' would pertain to marriage.

I thought that was obvious.
If you say that nothing NOTICEABLE happens to a teenager, you're WRONG. And the changes in regards to marriage, you added that wrinkle a few posts later, even though that was the thread topic.
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Re: Do you agree with the Western definition of paedophilia?

Post by The Nomad »

Amadeus101 wrote: If you say that nothing NOTICEABLE happens to a teenager, you're WRONG. And the changes in regards to marriage, you added that wrinkle a few posts later, even though that was the thread topic.
No I'm not.

The 'wrinkle' was apparent, but when you possess my level of eloquence, confusion is bound to happen. I merely clarified it for you since you seemed to misunderstand my post.
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Re: Do you agree with the Western definition of paedophilia?

Post by Grant »

In the US, those ages would comprise highschool and the last two years of junior high.

:shock:

There is also such a thing as emotional maturity. And financial stress due to a lack of education. :down:
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Re: Do you agree with the Western definition of paedophilia?

Post by The Nomad »

Grant wrote:In the US, those ages would comprise highschool and the last two years of junior high.

:shock:

There is also such a thing as emotional maturity. And financial stress due to a lack of education. :down:
Again, this topic goes beyond the US. The US is not the world, nor are their standards universal.

Again, 'emotional maturity' is not quantifiable and should therefore be disregarded. Again, this is why independent bodies should judge cases on their INDIVIDUAL merits and not make a blanket ruling.

This has all been addressed.
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Re: Do you agree with the Western definition of paedophilia?

Post by Diyeeshaha_Tolka »

Nomad sxb just admit and say that u fancy having small children around u like m.jacksson..waa iska caadi ur not the only one
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