SomaliNet Forums

After all the deen is the ONLY thing that will rescue us from the hellfire not politics, qabiil or other nonsense. so pls. let's discuss and contribute with anything of knowledge.

Ok let me start with this ayat from sura an-nuur ayat 3:

''Alzzanee la yankihuilla zaniyatan aw mushrikatan waalzzaniyatula yankihuha illa zanin awmushrikun wahurrima thalika AAalaalmu/mineena''

How would you translate this ayat?

"The male fornicator will not marry except for the female fornicator or female idolater, and the female fornicator will not marry except for the male fornicator or male idolater. And those are haraam for believers."

alpha that translation is the most widespread understanding of this ayat but accordion to this sheikh I was listening to he said it was misleading. I wanted to see if others knew of different translation of the ayat.

ManD333q wrote:alpha that translation is the most widespread understanding of this ayat but accordion to this sheikh I was listening to he said it was misleading. I wanted to see if others knew of different translation of the ayat.

If want an explanation, that's up for debate. But I think a translation is pretty straight forward.

THis is the lecture look from 04:50

I understand what he's saying, but it doesn't make sense to me.

If it is in the very literal sense, can a virgin commit adultery? If it is in taken in the larger scheme of things, what exactly is haraam for the believers? Fornication? That's made obvious throughout the chapter, but it's this ayaah specifically that deals with marriage and marrying of fornicators. "Will not" here, to me, is not predictive but a command.

what he is saying is the ayat has nothing to do with marriage but the word 'nikkah' is in this contents the act itself. He is basically saying that this ayat is to show that the man and woman are equally guilty and therefore are so should punished the same.

ManD333q wrote:what he is saying is the ayat has nothing to do with marriage but the word 'nikkah' is in this contents the act itself. He is basically saying that this ayat is to show that the man and woman are equally guilty and therefore are so should punished the same.

I understand what he is saying. I've already said I understand. But I'm contesting that, since he himself said that sahabah explained it as an ayah of marriage.

I wonder who's right?

WestLdnShawty wrote:I think it's alot more complex then the translation above.
The term zina is broad.. If I remember correctly one can still be a virgin and still commit zina, as zina isn't just adultery/fornication. But rather there are different types of zina.. Such as zina of the eyes, zina of the ear etc.

A reach.

Zina is zina. We all know what it means.

So which 'zina' does this ayah refer to?